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It is true that after the era of rightly guided caliphs, Deen was split into Public and Personal segments. Personal laws were placed under the purview of theologians. The Imams are said to have driven the Ummah into sects and factions. The question arise on what account? Did they differ - on what to do or did they disagree on how to do? The History tells us that one of them was based in Iraq, the other lived in Medina. Yet another spent his life in Baghdad and the other worked in Iran. They may have suggested different ways of achieving the objectives of Deen according to the situation obtaining in their respective areas. Does it mean fragmentation of Deen? The problem, as I think, emerged when how to do, which can never be permanent, was made an obligatory part of Deen and given the name of Sunnah of the exalted prophet (saw). Is it incumbent upon me to go for Hajj using saddled animals as was done by the Messenger of Allah (pbuh)? I think No; because by using other mode of transportation, I am not deviating from what to do. I am only improving how to do. This should be true with other rituals. Why disintegrate on such differences? Discussing rituals some exegetes’ express strong disapproval of the prevailing structure of Islam on the plea that Allah did not say so. The irony of fate is that what they recommend is also not found in the Quran. They too count on what according to them is futile and what is good. Never will they quote from Quran or give precedent from the prophetic era. Hajj, for example, they say is like UNO. The question arise was it ever used as such since the day it was instituted? Are we devoid of History? What wonders me and a commoner is that all variants are proving their stance from the Book of Allah. Is this glorious book disposed to different understanding by different people? What then is the excellence of the book? I shiver to think of it. Does one require extraordinary intellect to understand the words of Allah? If so, then may Allah forgive people of ordinary prudence like me. I shall be highly obliged for guidance. Muhammad Latif Chaudhery
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Latif Chaudhery asked on Oct 24, 2015 and it has 2354 views.
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It is astonishing to see that the transcribers write one line from Quran and expand it to more than 10 lines in other language. This usually they do by mixing similar verses obtaining from other chapters of the Quran and call it "Tasreef-e-Ayaat." Reader is perplexed to see that the translation has little or no relevance to the original text. Is it that Quran cannot be understood without being expounded? Arabic is said to be a rich language. Rich language means it has separate words for each shade of meaning. Allah says: "If all the trees on earth were made into pens, and the ocean supplied the ink, augmented by seven more oceans, the words of God would not run out". Why then it is assumed that Allah has used multi-meaning words? For example word "Nisa" has been used at different places. At some places it is taken as wife, at other just a woman. With some exegetes it stands for both male and female or what has been overlooked, or forgotten. A reader does not find answer to why Allah preferred not to use separate words for all these expressions?
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Latif Chaudhery asked on Oct 24, 2015 and it has 2356 views.
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WHICH FORM OF RIBA IS PROHIBITEDM? Riba in Arabic literally means increase, gain or profit on money loaned. No where in Quran Riba is prohibited. The word used in Quran is Al-Riba (2:275). This is a proper noun pointing out to something not just riba. The question is which form of riba is then partcularized as Al-riba. If Quran is to be read with reference to the context then we must find out as to what were the circumstance under which increase, gain or profit on money loaned was prohibited? Examin Let us examination of e a few verses of Quran encapsulating the word Al-Riba in verse 2:275. Reading verse 2:272 to 2:280 we find that the issue discussed in these verses is, helping the poor deserving charity. Explaining how to help a poor, Allah says “ help them by way of charity and if you cannot help them by charity, then give them loan and charge no usury. Such people may not be able to pay back the loan in time. If so, give them more time or remit the loan as charity. The debtor being discussed here is the poor deserving charity. (2/272-280) Amazingly, every where in Qur’an, Al-Riba is contrasted with Charity. This obviously means over charging on loans to people deserving charity is prohibited. It has nothing to do with trading and commercial loans. Allah knows better.
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asked on Oct 23, 2015 and it has 2231 views.
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Please explain alssulbi waalttara-ibi in 86:7 86:5 So let the human being see from what he was created. 86:6 He has been created from turbulent water. 86:7 That issued from between/ amoung alssulbi waalttara-ibi words I go from dictionary - SLB as Hard or Firm and TRB as dusty or dust covered. while the traditional translation shows spinal cord , tough rocks etc.. please elaborate the verse and show how it fits logically in statement. Thanks -Reena
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asked on May 29, 2014 and it has 2646 views.
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I am a female child born into a very poor family in a poor part of the world. I never asked to be born into the third world. My parents both belong to the labor class who earned the equivalent of £2 per day. When I was 5, my parents managed to raise the fees required and I went to a local primary school in which children sat on the floor and were educated in the basics. One day I came home and learnt that my dad had been injured while working on some machinery and had lost his job. My mum told me that I could no longer go to school as there was no money for my school fees and expenses. She needed me to help her look after my dad and do the house chores so that she could go out to work in other people’s homes as a maid servant to earn money for the family. After a few weeks, she told me to go out and beg as we can’t make ends meet. I start begging in a neighboring town and initially I find it very hard to beg for money. Then I see other children begging and gradually pick up the courage to start begging. I don’t have any shoes or slippers on my feet. A passerby questions me about my lack of footwear. I tell him that my parents are too poor to buy me any. He gives me the equivalent of £1 and tells me to go buy a pair of shoes. This is more than I would have made in one day, so I go home early. I give the money to my mum, who is pleased and gets me a cheap pair of slippers to wear. I go back to the same place every day now wearing slippers. I think of other children from rich families who go to school and do not have to beg. I do think of God sometimes, but then I think, He must be only for the rich and powerful. I don’t see any end to my and my family’s suffering. Am I equal to other human beings? If I am equal, why don’t they do something for children like me who live in perpetual poverty and die in the same state? Questions: 1. Why is this child in this position 2. What permanent values are applicable here
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superadmin asked on Apr 20, 2014 and it has 2601 views.
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